jmc

Since $f(b)=4$, the point $(b,4)$ is on the graph of $y=f(x)$. By inspection, $(2,4)$ is on the graph, so $b=2$ (there is no other candidate since $f$ is stated to be an invertible function).

Similarly, since $f(a)=2$, the point $(a,2)$ is on the graph of $y=f(x)$. By inspection, $(0,2)$ is on the graph, so $a=0$.

Therefore, $a-b=0-2=\boxed{-2}$.