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Print37th Iranian Mathematical Olympiad
Iran number theory
Problem
Let be an infinite set of positive integers, define: Suppose that there are only finitely many primes such that: a) . b) There exists a positive integer such that , . Prove that there are infinitely many primes that divide at least one element of .
Solution
Assume the contrary, that there exist only finitely many prime numbers that divide an element of . Let's denote them . Take For every we can write it as The pigeonhole principle implies that there exist two indices such that if then for all . So we have where , and . So if is an odd prime such that then we'll have (it is obvious since ). And if we take large enough such that , we'll have . Contradiction.
Now it's enough to show that there exists an odd prime divisor of where , and for every large enough . For this, note that and .
Now it's enough to show that there exists an odd prime divisor of where , and for every large enough . For this, note that and .
Techniques
Multiplicative orderFermat / Euler / Wilson theoremsPigeonhole principlePrime numbers