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PrintArgentine National Olympiad 2015
Argentina 2015 algebra
Problem
We say that a natural number is of type 1 (respectively type 2) if each of its digits at even (respectively odd) position is greater than or equal to each of its adjacent digits. Positions are counted from left to right; leading zeros are not allowed (the first digit is assumed nonzero). One-digit numbers are considered to be both of type 1 and of type 2. Decide if it is true that:
a) Each number of type 1 can be represented as with , numbers of type 2.
b) Each number of type 2 can be represented as with , numbers of type 1.
a) Each number of type 1 can be represented as with , numbers of type 2.
b) Each number of type 2 can be represented as with , numbers of type 1.
Solution
The answer is yes for part a) and no for part b).
Consider a number of type 1. If is a 1-digit number then is the desired representation since and are 1-digit numbers, hence type 2 numbers by definition.
Let have at least two digits. Write it in the form where and are its digits at odd and even position respectively. We have for the first digit , also since is of type 1.
Now let be the number obtained by replacing all digits at even positions by . This is a type 2 number because for all .
Next, construct number as follows: delete the first digit from , then replace all remaining digits at odd positions by zeros. In other words ; the first digit is nonzero. Clearly is also of type 2, and it has one digit less than (and a). Now it follows from the rule of addition that , so part a) is done.
For part b) we show that the type 2 number is not representable as the sum of two type 1 numbers. Suppose on the contrary that such a representation exists. If one summand is among then the other is among , and the latter numbers are not of type 1. So let both summands be 2-digit numbers, and let be one of them, with as is of type 1. The other summand is then . Because and , the digits of are and in this order. However because , hence is not a type 1 number, contrary to the assumption.
Consider a number of type 1. If is a 1-digit number then is the desired representation since and are 1-digit numbers, hence type 2 numbers by definition.
Let have at least two digits. Write it in the form where and are its digits at odd and even position respectively. We have for the first digit , also since is of type 1.
Now let be the number obtained by replacing all digits at even positions by . This is a type 2 number because for all .
Next, construct number as follows: delete the first digit from , then replace all remaining digits at odd positions by zeros. In other words ; the first digit is nonzero. Clearly is also of type 2, and it has one digit less than (and a). Now it follows from the rule of addition that , so part a) is done.
For part b) we show that the type 2 number is not representable as the sum of two type 1 numbers. Suppose on the contrary that such a representation exists. If one summand is among then the other is among , and the latter numbers are not of type 1. So let both summands be 2-digit numbers, and let be one of them, with as is of type 1. The other summand is then . Because and , the digits of are and in this order. However because , hence is not a type 1 number, contrary to the assumption.
Final answer
a) Yes. b) No.
Techniques
IntegersOther