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PrintIranian Mathematical Olympiad
Iran algebra
Problem
Let be a function such that for all : i) . ii) . iii) .
Prove that for every , .
Prove that for every , .
Solution
We claim that for every and real numbers : Proof is done by induction on . Basis is obviously the condition (iii). Suppose the claim is true for . For we have: Now suppose that : If we put then . Therefore If tends to infinity, we have and this implies the desired result.
Techniques
Functional EquationsInduction / smoothingAlgebraic properties of binomial coefficients